CCNA 4 Final Exam (v5.03)

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

2. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

3. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?

4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configuration is completed, users are unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?

5. What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

6. A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

7. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

8. Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

9. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

10. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

11. What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

12. The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

13. Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

14. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

16. What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?

17. Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

18. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

19. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

20. Why is it useful to categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

21. A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

22. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?

23. Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, collaborate, and interact with information?

24. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

25. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

26. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

27. Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

29. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

30. Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

31. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

32. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

33. In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

34. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

35. Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)

36. Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

37. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

38. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

40. What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

41. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

42. Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

43. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

44. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

45. Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

46. What term is used to identify the point where the customer network ends and the service provider network begins?

47. Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

48. A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

49. Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

51. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

52. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

53. What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

54. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)