CCNA 2 v5.02 + v5.03 Practice Final Exam Answers 2016

1
Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

2

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

3
A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

4
Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

5

Refer to the exhibit. What address will be used as the router ID for the OSPFv3 process?

6
What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

7

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

8
A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

9

SW0(config)#interface vlan 10
SW0(config-if)#ip address 192.168.63.2 255.255.255.0
SW0(config-if)#exit
SW0(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.63.1
SW0(config)#end

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
To verify that the SVI is configured correctly, answer this question: Which ping command completed successfully?​

10
What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

11
How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?

12
Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

13
A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

14

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

15
Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

16
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

17

Refer to the exhibit. In the routing table entry, what is the administrative distance?

18
What does an OSPF area contain?

19
Which command will create a static default route on R1 to send all traffic to the Internet and use serial 0/0 as the exit interface?

20
What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

21
Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255
Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0
Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0
Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

22
What is meant by the term “best match” when applied to the routing table lookup process?

23
Fill in the blank.

24

Refer to the exhibit. The student on the H1 computer continues to launch an extended ping with expanded packets at the student on the H2 computer. The school network administrator wants to stop this behavior, but still allow both students access to web-based computer assignments. What would be the best plan for the network administrator?

25

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)

26

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

27. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)

28
Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?

29

Refer to the exhibit. Which would be chosen as the router ID of R2?

30
A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

31
Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

32
What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

33
A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)

34
Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

35. Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

36
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

37

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

38
In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?

39

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

40
What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

41
An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

42
What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

43
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

44

Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

45
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?​

46
When does a switch use frame filtering?

47
How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

48
An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?

49
An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)

50
When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)

51. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

52. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

53. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

54. Refer to the exhibit.

A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

55. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

56. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

57. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

58. Which characteristic is unique to EIGRP?

59. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

60. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

61. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)